Zizek and Foucault case turn in Critiques Posted May 12 · Report reply 7 minutes ago, theorderis15offandcase said: Could you explain why it would work against some ableism affs? I guess I really don't understand the argument at all I'll take a wild swing and guess that this card is from History of Sexuality or Madness and Civilization. In either case, Foucault is describing how a discourse is constructed, which in the lines of the card you've provided is the discourse of madness. This is a set of assumptions, values, and logic that circulate through how society (particularly psychotherapists) talk about "madness" as a thing which exists and can be analyzed. A discourse produces its subjects. It makes them appear coherently as subjects with certain disorders. Foucault's thesis is that even though the behaviors and symptoms that are described as madness exist in themselves, they exist as a set of named pathologies that we call "madness" only through a discourse. So there might be a set of hallucinations, outbursts, etc. that we might call schizophrenia, but we have decided to name it that and assert that it is a disorder. Foucault's claim is not that these discourses are always bad (schizophrenia probably sucks and diagnosing it is important) but that we should understand their structures and effects. Take lobotomy as an example: for several decades, it was thought of as a respectable and medically sound practice for curing certain disorders. But according to the psychological discourse of the 40s and 50s, these disorders often included simple disobedience, laziness, or a number of other relatively mundane behaviors that fall well within the realm of healthy neurologically and environmentally conditioned deviance. (I should note that when I say "healthy" I'm referring to what is considered healthy within contemporary psychological discourse. This is not a "disclaimer" per say, and there are good reasons to prefer certain discourses over others, but it is important to point out that the differences exist.) As a consequence of the consensus at the time, thousands of people were lobotomized against their will, often disproportionately women. This was probably related to the discursive inclusion of "hysteria" and burgeoning female independence within discourses of madness. Now, the debate applications of this argument seem strenuous at best. "Leuret wishes to obtain a precise act the explicit affirmation, 'I am mad.'" This line suggests a somewhat more humane application of a discourse of madness, but the point is that the therapist wanted the patient to admit they were mad: that they were wrong and that now they could see that. Such an admission would provide support for the discourse. As an example, in their book Anti-Oedipus Deleuze and Guattari mock the psychoanalyst Melanie Klein's studies into child psychology: "Say it’s Oedipus, or I’ll slap you upside the head." The theory (that psychology boils down to Oedipus) is brought into reality by its own adherents (Freudians). This could be made to relate to an aff that discusses mental disorders. Take an ableism aff discusses how the 1a is schizophrenic, how they have treated, etc. You could make the case that they have bought into the discourse of madness. Depending on how they discuss "schizophrenia" they could be uncritically accepting the terms of the discourse of madness: by rebelling as as schizophrenic they implicitly affirm the premise that schizophrenia is a natural condition which society simply responds to. You would have to argue some kind of radical mental health position that schizophrenia is produced by social factors, capitalism, etc. and that by saying "I am [schizophrenic]" they have reaffirmed dominant discourses on this subject. Maybe they'll be written off as mad, idk. The trouble is that often ableism affs are explicitly or implicitly critical of the discourse of madness. They would agree with Foucault. And if they don't, chances are there's a reason and that whatever they are describing can be adequately described within medical discourse. This could be applied to other affs too like Irigaray, in which the aff might affirm that they are rebelling as hysterics. But it is very contingent on how the 1ac describes the form of oppression: do they simply reaffirm the terms of the discourse? do they establish a new one? do they subvert the current one? You would want to keep this as an option, because it could be a very good case takeout against certain affs like I described (they rebel as the mad), but it does not seem like a super reliable choice since small minutiae could determine how the aff answers it better or worse. I might make another post later about the Zizek evidence, but again I don't see a great connection here. They might even be opposed to one another depending on how Zizek deploys psychoanalysis, although I doubt it goes that far. His prose is much more opaque and I actually would need the evidence to make a very detailed post. My take rn is that he is probably criticizing the Stalinists for being too ideological (unwilling to admit "the [counterrevolutionary] Other does not exist"), but I don't see how almost any aff is analogous to Stalinist jurors in either form or content. Need the card, ask your coach.